Free organ-system MCQs with detailed explanations. Tagged to the ABPath AP exam blueprint. WHO 5th Edition and CAP guidelines aligned. No login. No paywall. Start now.
A 58-year-old man undergoes colonoscopy revealing a 4 cm pedunculated polyp in the sigmoid colon. Histology shows a tubular adenoma with high-grade dysplasia. No invasion into the submucosa is identified. The resection margin is free. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: B — Surveillance colonoscopy in 3 years
A completely excised tubular adenoma with high-grade dysplasia but no submucosal invasion (pTis) is adequately treated by polypectomy alone, provided the margin is clear. Current guidelines recommend surveillance colonoscopy within 3 years due to the high-grade dysplasia. Segmental colectomy would be indicated if there were submucosal invasion with adverse features (positive margin, lymphovascular invasion, poorly differentiated component).
Board Pearl:High-grade dysplasia without invasion = pTis = polypectomy is curative if margins are clear.
A liver biopsy from a 42-year-old woman with elevated ALP and anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) shows granulomatous destruction of interlobular bile ducts with surrounding lymphocytic infiltrate. Ductopenia is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Primary biliary cholangitis
The combination of elevated ALP, positive AMA, and histological florid duct lesion with granulomatous bile duct destruction is pathognomonic for primary biliary cholangitis (PBC, formerly primary biliary cirrhosis). PSC shows concentric "onion-skin" periductal fibrosis. Autoimmune hepatitis predominantly affects hepatocytes (interface hepatitis) rather than bile ducts. Drug-induced injury can mimic many patterns but the AMA positivity points specifically to PBC.
A 5 cm gastric submucosal mass is resected. Histology shows spindle cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm. IHC: DOG1+, CD117+, CD34+, desmin−, S100−. Mitotic rate is 6/5 mm². What is the risk stratification?
Correct Answer: D — High risk
This is a gastric GIST. Risk stratification for GIST uses the modified NIH criteria considering tumour size, mitotic rate, and site. A gastric GIST of 5 cm with >5 mitoses/5 mm² falls into the high-risk category. DOG1 and CD117 positivity with negative desmin and S100 confirms GIST over leiomyoma (desmin+) and schwannoma (S100+). High-risk gastric GISTs have significant metastatic potential and typically warrant adjuvant imatinib therapy.
Board Pearl:GIST risk = size + mitotic rate + location. Gastric GISTs have better prognosis than small bowel GISTs at the same size/mitotic count.
A 35-year-old woman is found to have a 6 cm well-circumscribed solid and cystic pancreatic mass. Histology shows monomorphic cells arranged around hyalinised fibrovascular cores with pseudorosette formation. IHC shows nuclear β-catenin positivity and progesterone receptor positivity. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm
Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm (SPN) classically presents in young women as a large solid and cystic pancreatic mass. The hallmark histology is pseudopapillary architecture with hyalinised fibrovascular cores. Nuclear β-catenin (due to CTNNB1 mutation) and progesterone receptor positivity are characteristic IHC findings. PanNETs show synaptophysin/chromogranin positivity. Acinar cell carcinoma shows trypsin/chymotrypsin positivity. MCN has ovarian-type stroma.
Board Pearl:Young woman + solid-cystic pancreatic mass + nuclear β-catenin = SPN until proven otherwise.
A colonic biopsy from a patient with longstanding ulcerative colitis shows dysplasia-associated lesion or mass (DALM). The surrounding flat mucosa also shows low-grade dysplasia. IHC shows p53 overexpression in the dysplastic areas. What is the recommended management?
Correct Answer: C — Proctocolectomy
In ulcerative colitis, a DALM with concurrent flat dysplasia in the surrounding mucosa indicates a field change with high risk of synchronous or metachronous carcinoma. The combination of a raised dysplastic lesion, flat dysplasia elsewhere, and p53 overexpression (suggesting TP53 mutation, a late event in the IBD-dysplasia-carcinoma sequence) constitutes a strong indication for proctocolectomy. Isolated, well-circumscribed polyps (adenoma-like DALMs) without surrounding flat dysplasia may be managed endoscopically, but multifocal dysplasia changes the calculus.
Board Pearl:DALM + flat dysplasia in surrounding mucosa = proctocolectomy. Isolated adenoma-like polyp without flat dysplasia = endoscopic resection may suffice.
A Pap smear shows cells with high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular nuclear membranes, and dense orangeophilic cytoplasm. The background shows tumour diathesis. What is the most likely interpretation?
Correct Answer: B — Squamous cell carcinoma
The combination of malignant squamous cell features (hyperchromatic nuclei, irregular membranes, high N:C ratio) with orangeophilic (keratinising) cytoplasm AND tumour diathesis (necrotic debris, old blood) indicates invasive squamous cell carcinoma. HSIL shows similar nuclear abnormalities but without tumour diathesis or keratinisation. LSIL shows koilocytes with relatively low N:C ratio. The tumour diathesis is the critical distinguishing feature.
Board Pearl:Tumour diathesis on Pap smear = invasive malignancy. No diathesis = pre-invasive (HSIL/LSIL).
A thyroid FNA shows papillary tissue fragments with nuclear grooves, intranuclear pseudoinclusions, and powdery chromatin. Occasional psammoma bodies are present. What Bethesda category is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D — Bethesda VI (Malignant)
The combination of papillary architecture, nuclear grooves, intranuclear pseudoinclusions, powdery chromatin, and psammoma bodies is diagnostic of papillary thyroid carcinoma. This warrants Bethesda VI (Malignant) classification. Bethesda V (Suspicious) would be used when some but not all features are present. The triad of nuclear grooves + pseudoinclusions + powdery chromatin is the classic "Orphan Annie eye" nuclear morphology of PTC.
Board Pearl:Nuclear grooves + intranuclear inclusions + psammoma bodies = Bethesda VI (PTC). If features are equivocal, use Bethesda V.
A CT-guided FNA of a lung mass in a 65-year-old smoker shows 3D cell clusters with acinar/glandular architecture, nuclear pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, and mucin vacuoles. TTF-1 is positive on cell block. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
The cytological features (glandular architecture, mucin vacuoles, prominent nucleoli) combined with TTF-1 positivity are diagnostic of pulmonary adenocarcinoma. Squamous cell carcinoma shows keratinisation, intercellular bridges, and is typically TTF-1 negative. Small cell carcinoma shows nuclear moulding, crush artefact, and salt-and-pepper chromatin. Mesothelioma typically shows calretinin+, WT1+, D2-40+ rather than TTF-1 positivity.
Board Pearl:TTF-1+ glandular architecture in lung FNA = adenocarcinoma. Next step: reflex molecular testing for EGFR, ALK, ROS1, PD-L1.
A pleural effusion fluid shows large cells with abundant cytoplasm, prominent nucleoli, and cell-in-cell engulfment (cannibalism). IHC on cell block: CK7+, CK20−, TTF-1+, calretinin−. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Metastatic pulmonary adenocarcinoma
The IHC profile (CK7+, TTF-1+, calretinin−) points to metastatic pulmonary adenocarcinoma in pleural fluid. Calretinin negativity rules out mesothelioma (which is calretinin+, WT1+, D2-40+). Cell cannibalism is a feature of malignancy in effusion cytology. Metastatic breast carcinoma would be GATA3+ and typically TTF-1 negative (though rare TTF-1 positivity occurs in breast). The CK7+/CK20−/TTF-1+ profile is highly specific for lung primary.
A radical nephrectomy specimen shows a well-circumscribed golden-yellow tumour. Histology reveals nests of clear cells with prominent sinusoidal vasculature. IHC: PAX8+, carbonic anhydrase IX (CAIX)+, CD10+, CK7−. Which genetic alteration is most commonly associated?
Correct Answer: B — VHL gene inactivation
Clear cell renal cell carcinoma (ccRCC) is characterised by clear cytoplasm, sinusoidal vasculature, and strong CAIX membranous positivity. VHL gene inactivation (3p25 deletion or mutation) is the hallmark genetic event, leading to HIF pathway activation. MET mutations are associated with papillary RCC type 1. TFE3 translocations define MiT family translocation RCC. Fumarate hydratase loss defines hereditary leiomyomatosis-associated RCC.
Board Pearl:Clear cell RCC = VHL loss → HIF activation → VEGF upregulation (basis for targeted therapy with sunitinib/pazopanib).
A prostate needle biopsy shows small atypical acini with prominent nucleoli, lacking basal cells on p63/CK5/6 IHC. AMACR (racemase) is positive. The tumour forms well-defined individual glands. What is the Gleason grade group?
Correct Answer: A — Grade Group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6)
Well-formed individual discrete glands = Gleason pattern 3. The absence of basal cells (negative p63/CK5/6) with positive AMACR confirms malignancy over a benign mimic. Grade Group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6) has an excellent prognosis and is often managed with active surveillance. Gleason pattern 4 would show poorly formed, fused, or cribriform glands. The ISUP Grade Group system (1–5) is the current WHO-recommended reporting standard.
Board Pearl:Discrete well-formed glands = Gleason 3. Fused/cribriform/poorly formed = Gleason 4. Any amount of Gleason pattern 4 changes the grade group.
A TURBT specimen from a 70-year-old man shows a papillary urothelial neoplasm with moderate cytological atypia, scattered mitoses at all levels, loss of polarity, and focal invasion into the lamina propria (pT1). IHC shows CK20 positivity in the full thickness of the urothelium and aberrant p53 expression. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C — High-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma, pT1
The combination of architectural disorganisation, scattered mitoses at all levels, loss of polarity, and full-thickness CK20 positivity (normal urothelium shows CK20 limited to umbrella cells) indicates high-grade urothelial carcinoma. Invasion into lamina propria makes it pT1. Aberrant p53 supports high-grade/aggressive biology. PUNLMP has minimal atypia. Low-grade has orderly cells with mild atypia. CIS is flat high-grade dysplasia without papillary architecture.
A 28-year-old man presents with a painless testicular mass. Histology shows sheets of large cells with clear cytoplasm, distinct cell borders, central round nuclei, and prominent nucleoli. Lymphocytic infiltrate is present. Serum markers: elevated LDH, normal AFP, mildly elevated β-hCG. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Classic seminoma
Classic seminoma shows sheets of large uniform cells with clear/watery cytoplasm, distinct cell borders ("fried egg" appearance), central nuclei with prominent nucleoli, and characteristic lymphocytic infiltrate. Seminoma has normal AFP (elevated AFP rules out pure seminoma), may have mildly elevated β-hCG (syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells), and elevated LDH. Embryonal carcinoma shows more pleomorphic, cohesive epithelioid cells with CD30 positivity. Yolk sac tumour elevates AFP.
Board Pearl:AFP elevation = NOT pure seminoma (even if histology looks like seminoma, reclassify as mixed germ cell tumour). Seminoma + elevated AFP = search for yolk sac component.
A core biopsy of a 1.8 cm breast mass shows an invasive carcinoma with tubule formation >75%, mild nuclear pleomorphism (score 1), and mitotic count 4/10 HPF (score 1). What is the Nottingham grade?
Correct Answer: A — Grade 1 (well-differentiated)
Nottingham grading: Tubule formation >75% = score 1. Nuclear pleomorphism mild = score 1. Mitoses 4/10 HPF = score 1. Total = 3–5 = Grade 1. Grade 2 = total 6–7. Grade 3 = total 8–9. This is a fundamental surgical pathology grading system tested on every board exam. Grade 1 invasive breast carcinoma (usually Luminal A-like) has excellent prognosis.
A 45-year-old woman's breast tumour shows ER negative, PR negative, HER2 negative (score 0), Ki-67 80%, and high mitotic rate. BRCA1 germline mutation is confirmed. Which molecular subtype and IHC surrogate does this represent?
Correct Answer: D — Basal-like / Triple-negative
ER−/PR−/HER2− = triple-negative breast cancer, which corresponds to the basal-like molecular subtype in most cases. BRCA1 mutations are strongly associated with triple-negative/basal-like breast cancers. High Ki-67 and high mitotic rate are typical. These tumours do not benefit from endocrine therapy or anti-HER2 therapy; treatment relies on chemotherapy and increasingly on immunotherapy (pembrolizumab) and PARP inhibitors (olaparib in BRCA-mutant disease).
Board Pearl:Triple-negative ≈ basal-like. BRCA1 → typically triple-negative. BRCA2 → can be any subtype but often luminal. PARP inhibitors are approved for BRCA-mutant breast cancer.
A breast biopsy shows small, monomorphic cells growing in single-file ("Indian file") pattern and targetoid (bullseye) pattern around ducts. E-cadherin IHC is completely absent. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Invasive lobular carcinoma
Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) is characterised by small, discohesive, monomorphic cells infiltrating in single-file (Indian file) and targetoid (concentric periductal) patterns. Loss of E-cadherin expression (due to CDH1 mutation or methylation) is the molecular hallmark and key diagnostic IHC marker. Ductal NST shows cohesive nests/tubules and retains E-cadherin. Tubular carcinoma shows angulated open tubules. Classic (pleomorphic) medullary pattern shows syncytial growth with lymphocytic infiltrate.
Board Pearl:E-cadherin loss = lobular. E-cadherin retained = ductal. CDH1 is on chromosome 16q22. Lobular carcinoma frequently metastasises to GI tract and peritoneum (unlike ductal).
An endometrial biopsy from a 62-year-old woman shows a high-grade carcinoma with serous architecture (papillary pattern with slit-like spaces), marked nuclear atypia, and frequent mitoses. IHC: p53 mutant pattern (diffuse strong), ER negative, PR negative, p16 block-positive. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Serous carcinoma
Endometrial serous carcinoma (ESC) shows papillary architecture with slit-like spaces, high-grade nuclear atypia, and a characteristic IHC profile: p53 mutant pattern (diffuse strong overexpression due to missense TP53 mutation), ER/PR negative, and p16 block-positive (diffuse strong, due to TP53 pathway rather than HPV). This is a "p53-abnormal" carcinoma in the new molecular classification (TCGA). It is aggressive regardless of stage. Grade 3 endometrioid is ER+/PR+ in most cases.
Board Pearl:p53 mutant + ER−/PR− + high-grade papillary = serous carcinoma. The new WHO/TCGA molecular classification has 4 groups: POLE ultramutated, MMR-deficient, no specific molecular profile, and p53-abnormal.
A 55-year-old woman presents with a bilateral ovarian mass and elevated CA-125. Histology shows papillary architecture with psammoma bodies, slit-like spaces, and high-grade nuclear features. IHC: PAX8+, WT1+, p53 mutant pattern, CK7+. What is the most likely primary site?
Correct Answer: B — Tubal primary
Current evidence and WHO 5th Edition classification recognise that the majority of "ovarian" high-grade serous carcinomas (HGSC) actually originate from serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC) in the fallopian tube fimbriae. The IHC profile (PAX8+, WT1+, p53 mutant, CK7+) is consistent with Müllerian/tubal origin. This paradigm shift has led to risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy in BRCA carriers and the routine examination of fallopian tubes (SEE-FIM protocol).
Board Pearl:Most high-grade serous "ovarian" carcinomas originate from the fallopian tube (STIC). This is a WHO 5th Edition update and a high-yield board question.
A skin biopsy shows an asymmetric melanocytic lesion with pagetoid spread, irregular nests at the dermal-epidermal junction, and invasion to 1.8 mm depth (Breslow thickness). No ulceration is present. Mitotic rate is 2/mm². What is the pathologic T stage?
Correct Answer: C — pT2a
AJCC 8th Edition melanoma staging: pT2 = Breslow 1.01–2.0 mm. The "a" suffix indicates no ulceration. So 1.8 mm without ulceration = pT2a. Mitotic rate is no longer part of T-staging in AJCC 8th (it was in AJCC 7th for pT1b). pT1 = ≤1.0 mm, pT2 = 1.01–2.0 mm, pT3 = 2.01–4.0 mm, pT4 = >4.0 mm. "a" = no ulceration, "b" = ulceration present.
Board Pearl:AJCC 8th Edition dropped mitotic rate from melanoma T-staging. Only Breslow thickness and ulceration determine T category. Know the mm cut-offs: 1.0, 2.0, 4.0.
A skin biopsy of a slowly growing dermal nodule shows a storiform spindle cell proliferation with monotonous, bland nuclei entrapping subcutaneous fat at the periphery ("honeycomb pattern"). IHC: CD34 diffusely positive, factor XIIIa negative. What translocation is characteristically associated?
Correct Answer: B — t(17;22) COL1A1-PDGFB
Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is a low-grade dermal sarcoma with a characteristic storiform growth pattern, CD34 positivity, and honeycomb infiltration of subcutaneous fat. The hallmark translocation t(17;22) produces a COL1A1-PDGFB fusion gene, resulting in autocrine PDGFB signalling. This is therapeutically relevant as imatinib (PDGFR inhibitor) is effective in unresectable/metastatic DFSP. Factor XIIIa is typically positive in benign dermatofibroma (the main differential).
A lung resection for a 2.5 cm peripheral adenocarcinoma shows a predominantly acinar pattern (60%) with a solid component (30%) and lepidic component (10%). What is the predominant pattern for classification purposes, and which component determines the grade?
Correct Answer: B — Acinar predominant; graded by the highest-grade (solid) component
Per WHO 5th Edition, lung adenocarcinoma is classified by the predominant architectural pattern (acinar at 60% here). However, the new IASLC grading system grades adenocarcinoma by the highest-grade pattern present: Grade 1 = lepidic predominant without high-grade patterns. Grade 2 = acinar or papillary predominant without high-grade patterns. Grade 3 = any amount of solid, micropapillary, or complex glandular pattern. This tumour is acinar predominant but Grade 3 due to the 30% solid component.
Board Pearl:Lung adenocarcinoma: classify by PREDOMINANT pattern, grade by WORST pattern. Any solid or micropapillary = Grade 3 regardless of percentage.
A 55-year-old non-smoker's lung adenocarcinoma shows ALK rearrangement by FISH. Which histological pattern is most commonly associated with ALK-rearranged lung adenocarcinoma?
Correct Answer: B — Solid with signet ring cells/mucin
ALK-rearranged lung adenocarcinomas characteristically show solid growth with signet ring cell features and/or abundant intracellular mucin. They are more common in younger patients and non-smokers. EGFR-mutant adenocarcinomas are more commonly lepidic or papillary. ALK rearrangement is a predictive biomarker for crizotinib/alectinib/lorlatinib therapy. Detection methods include FISH (break-apart probe), IHC (ALK D5F3 clone), and NGS.
Board Pearl:Solid + signet ring + mucin + young non-smoker → think ALK rearrangement. Test with FISH or IHC (D5F3 clone). Treatable with ALK inhibitors.
Hematopathology — Lymph Nodes, Spleen & Bone Marrow
Group 08 · Q23–Q24
ABPath Blueprint: 6–8% of exam
Q23HematopathologyMedium
A cervical lymph node biopsy from a 22-year-old shows scattered large binucleated cells with prominent eosinophilic nucleoli ("owl-eye" appearance) in a background of small lymphocytes, eosinophils, histiocytes, and plasma cells. IHC: CD30+, CD15+, PAX5 dim, CD20−, CD45−. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Classic Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity
Reed-Sternberg cells (binucleated with owl-eye nucleoli) in a mixed inflammatory background (eosinophils, histiocytes, plasma cells, lymphocytes) is classic for mixed cellularity Hodgkin lymphoma. The IHC profile CD30+/CD15+/PAX5 dim/CD20−/CD45− is the hallmark of classic Hodgkin lymphoma (all subtypes). ALCL is CD30+ but ALK+ (in ALK-positive variant) and CD45+. DLBCL is CD20+, CD45+, PAX5 strong.
Board Pearl:Classic Hodgkin IHC = CD30+, CD15+, PAX5 dim, CD20−, CD45−. If CD20 is positive, consider nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin (LP cells) or DLBCL.
ABPath Blueprint: Lymph Nodes and Spleen + Bone Marrow
A peripheral blood smear shows circulating lymphocytes with round nuclei, condensed "soccer ball" chromatin, and short cytoplasmic projections. IHC/flow cytometry: CD19+, CD20+, CD22+, CD25+, CD103+, CD11c+, Annexin A1+. BRAF V600E mutation is detected. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Hairy cell leukaemia
Hairy cell leukaemia (HCL) shows characteristic lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections ("hairy cells"), round nuclei, and a specific immunophenotype: CD25+, CD103+, CD11c+, Annexin A1+ (the most specific marker). BRAF V600E mutation is present in virtually all classic HCL and is absent in the variant form and other small B-cell lymphomas. This is a targetable mutation (vemurafenib). CLL is CD5+/CD23+. MCL is CD5+/cyclin D1+. SMZL lacks CD103 and Annexin A1.
Board Pearl:Annexin A1 = most specific marker for hairy cell leukaemia. BRAF V600E is present in ~100% of classic HCL. Hairy cell variant is BRAF wild-type and MAP2K1-mutated.
ABPath Blueprint: Lymph Nodes and Spleen + Bone Marrow
A thyroid tumour shows encapsulated follicular growth pattern with RAS mutation, no capsular invasion, and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma (nuclear grooves, clearing). No BRAF V600E mutation is detected. What is the correct WHO 5th Edition diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D — NIFTP
NIFTP was introduced in the 2017 revision and retained in WHO 5th Edition to reclassify non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of PTC as a borderline/low-risk neoplasm. Criteria: encapsulated, follicular growth, PTC nuclear features, NO invasion, NO BRAF V600E. RAS mutation is characteristic (similar to follicular neoplasms). The reclassification reduces overtreatment — these lesions are managed with lobectomy alone without radioactive iodine.
Board Pearl:NIFTP criteria: encapsulated + follicular + PTC nuclei + NO invasion + NO BRAF V600E + NO papillary architecture. If ANY invasion → invasive EFVPTC.
An adrenalectomy specimen shows a 6 cm adrenocortical tumour. The pathologist applies the Weiss scoring system: high nuclear grade (1), mitotic rate >5/50 HPF (1), atypical mitoses (1), clear cells ≤25% (1), diffuse architecture (1), necrosis (1), venous invasion (1), sinusoidal invasion (1), capsular invasion (1). Total score = 9/9. What does a Weiss score ≥3 indicate?
Correct Answer: B — Adrenocortical carcinoma
The Weiss scoring system uses 9 histological criteria to differentiate adrenocortical adenoma from carcinoma. A score ≥3 indicates adrenocortical carcinoma. The 9 criteria are: high nuclear grade, >5 mitoses/50 HPF, atypical mitoses, ≤25% clear cells, diffuse architecture, necrosis, venous invasion, sinusoidal invasion, and capsular invasion. This tumour with 9/9 is unequivocally malignant. Note: some studies use a cut-off of ≥4 for carcinoma; the standard board answer is ≥3.
A deep-seated thigh mass in a 16-year-old shows small round blue cells arranged in sheets. IHC: CD99 (membranous)+, FLI-1+, NKX2-2+, CK−, desmin−, myogenin−. FISH confirms EWSR1 rearrangement. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Ewing sarcoma
Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour characterised by sheets of monomorphic cells with membranous CD99 positivity (highly sensitive but not specific), FLI-1 and NKX2-2 nuclear positivity, and EWSR1 rearrangement (most commonly EWSR1-FLI1 t(11;22)). Negative desmin/myogenin rules out rhabdomyosarcoma. Synovial sarcoma shows SS18-SSX fusion and biphasic or monophasic morphology. DSRCT shows EWSR1-WT1 fusion and a desmoplastic stroma.
A brain biopsy from a 45-year-old shows a diffusely infiltrating glial tumour with astrocytic morphology, IDH1 R132H mutation (positive by IHC), ATRX loss, and intact 1p/19q. There is no microvascular proliferation or necrosis. Ki-67 is 8%. According to WHO 2021 CNS classification, what is the integrated diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B — Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, grade 2
WHO 2021 CNS classification uses an integrated diagnosis requiring both histological AND molecular features. IDH-mutant + ATRX loss + intact 1p/19q = astrocytoma, IDH-mutant (not oligodendroglioma, which requires 1p/19q codeletion). No microvascular proliferation, no necrosis, and no CDKN2A/B homozygous deletion → Grade 2 (not 3 or 4). Grade 3 would show brisk mitotic activity. Grade 4 requires microvascular proliferation, necrosis, OR CDKN2A/B homozygous deletion.
ABPath Blueprint: Central and Peripheral Nervous System
28 Questions Down. 800+ to Go.
These free questions are from the same organ-system knowledge base as our full course. WHO 5th Edition. CAP guidelines. Every system on the AP blueprint.
Everything you need to know about these free pathology board questions.
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Are these questions based on the ABPath AP exam format?
These are single-best-answer MCQs covering organ-system pathology — the same format and content domain tested on the ABPath Anatomic Pathology board exam. They are aligned with WHO 5th Edition and CAP guidelines. We are not affiliated with or endorsed by ABPath.
Which organ systems do these questions cover?
The 28 questions span 13 categories matching the ABPath AP exam blueprint: GI/hepatobiliary, cytopathology, genitourinary, breast, gynecologic, dermatopathology, respiratory, hematopathology, endocrine, soft tissue, neuropathology, molecular pathology, and forensic pathology.
Are explanations included for every question?
Yes. Every question includes a detailed explanation covering why the correct answer is right, why each distractor is wrong, the relevant board pearl, and the ABPath blueprint category it maps to.
Is this useful for pathology residents outside the US?
Absolutely. The organ-system pathology, IHC panels, and molecular markers tested here are identical to those on the FRCPath Part 1 (UK) and NEET SS Pathology (India) examinations. The knowledge base is universal because all exams follow WHO and CAP standards.
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